In Iberian usage praeceptum marked divinely revealed law distinct from Vulgate christian command

Evidence

The exact connotation of praeceptum in this period is obscure, but it seems (specially in Spain) definitely to have carried some idea of a specifically revealed, or divine, commandment; and this is so, in spite of the Vulgate use, mandatum novum do vobis, etc. (John x11.34). — Norman Daniel, Islam and the West, 1910

Categorization

• QUESTION: Worth chasing: how did a neutral Latin word acquire a specifically ‘revelatory commandment’ connotation in Spain? What friar debate does this feed?